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Old Fri Jul 27, 2007, 07:11am
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Runner touches batted ball on home plate

Question from another umpire site:
Bases loaded, 2 outs. Batter hits a popper out in front of home plate. Catcher charges out but ball spins past the catcher(who doesn't touch the ball)back to home plate where it comes to rest, on top of the plate, catcher in pursuit. R3 slides into home plate, touching the base, then unitentionally kicks the ball. Runners do not advanced as a result of the kicked ball.

If this happened at any other base the runner would be out because he was touched by a batted ball over fair territory but what about once the runner has already scored?

What's the call??
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Old Fri Jul 27, 2007, 07:37am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by tibear
Question from another umpire site:
Bases loaded, 2 outs. Batter hits a popper out in front of home plate. Catcher charges out but ball spins past the catcher(who doesn't touch the ball)back to home plate where it comes to rest, on top of the plate, catcher in pursuit. R3 slides into home plate, touching the base, then unitentionally kicks the ball. Runners do not advanced as a result of the kicked ball.

If this happened at any other base the runner would be out because he was touched by a batted ball over fair territory but what about once the runner has already scored?

What's the call??
Didn't the ball go "immediately through or by" the catcher?
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Old Fri Jul 27, 2007, 07:49am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by tibear
Question from another umpire site:
Bases loaded, 2 outs. Batter hits a popper out in front of home plate. Catcher charges out but ball spins past the catcher(who doesn't touch the ball)back to home plate where it comes to rest, on top of the plate, catcher in pursuit. R3 slides into home plate, touching the base, then unitentionally kicks the ball. Runners do not advanced as a result of the kicked ball.

If this happened at any other base the runner would be out because he was touched by a batted ball over fair territory but what about once the runner has already scored?

What's the call??
I've got nothing!

Ball has passed behind protected fielder, no other fielder has opportunity and r3 contacts ball directly behind fielder who missed ball.
Besides, common sense tells me to let it go and sell the above interp if necessary.
edit
The downside to posting using your phone is that it takes so darn long to type it out and the Bob beats you to the punch line.

Last edited by Don Mueller; Fri Jul 27, 2007 at 07:54am.
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Old Fri Jul 27, 2007, 10:02am
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WOW !!!!
You guys are good.
I would have missed that completely. The catcher becomes a fielder and once the ball is by him, contact with the ball is allowed unintentionally.
That is a superb analysis guys.
Thank you.
I can't believe I'll ever see this play, but I love the scenario and the resulting explanation.


I'm easily impressed
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Old Fri Jul 27, 2007, 11:36am
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so it the OPPOSITE true?? if Catch never leave HIS position but the BALL GOES forward and spins back to PLATE--Runner from Third slides INTO it, hes OUT?
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Old Fri Jul 27, 2007, 12:12pm
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There's always something new. I all my years of making up hypothetical plays, I never considered one in which catcher would be the fielder of consequence in a play where the runner is hit by a batted ball.

The OP, though, reminds me of the case play in which, with the runner on 1B stealing, the batter hits a roller past the mound, and with F6 and F4 both running toward 2B, the ball hits the runner as he slides in to 2B. As I recall, the ruling there is also "nothing" (since there was no play possible?).

In the 7th game of the 1955 World Series, Phil Rizzuto, running from 2B, slid into a roller toward 3B and was called out, but that was because Don Hoak was right on top of the play trying to field the ball.
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Old Fri Jul 27, 2007, 12:17pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by UmpLarryJohnson
so it the OPPOSITE true?? if Catch never leave HIS position but the BALL GOES forward and spins back to PLATE--Runner from Third slides INTO it, hes OUT?
Why would he be out. Assuming that he touched home first and did not intentionally kick the ball, then he is no longer a runner, but is now a player authorized to be on the field of play.

I don't know if the "If a fair ball goes through, or by, an infielder, and touches a runner immediately back of him...the umpire shall not declare the runner out" rule applies, unless you consider F2 an infielder. But that point is moot because the ball didn't contact a runner. It is a live ball, like it would be if it was unintentionally contacted any other authorized person on the field.
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Old Fri Jul 27, 2007, 12:39pm
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i am thinking the SAME--im not argueing a point of VIEW, but asking the QEUSTION. if he SCORED First then yes its PLAY ON as i see it if he TOUCHES it before reaching PLATE hes OUT. JMO
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Old Fri Jul 27, 2007, 01:16pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by UmpLarryJohnson
i am thinking the SAME--im not argueing a point of VIEW, but asking the QEUSTION. if he SCORED First then yes its PLAY ON as i see it if he TOUCHES it before reaching PLATE hes OUT. JMO
http://www.geeksquad.com/

They might be able to help with that INTERMITTENT cap LOCK key.
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Old Fri Jul 27, 2007, 09:25pm
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Old Fri Jul 27, 2007, 11:30pm
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Originally Posted by UmpLarryJohnson
i am thinking the SAME--im not argueing a point of VIEW, but asking the QEUSTION. if he SCORED First then yes its PLAY ON as i see it if he TOUCHES it before reaching PLATE hes OUT. JMO
Quote:
Originally Posted by waltjp
http://www.geeksquad.com/

They might be able to help with that INTERMITTENT cap LOCK key.
It's Friday night. What else needs to be said (HiCcUP)
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Old Sat Jul 28, 2007, 07:55pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by tibear
Question from another umpire site:
Bases loaded, 2 outs. Batter hits a popper out in front of home plate. Catcher charges out but ball spins past the catcher(who doesn't touch the ball)back to home plate where it comes to rest, on top of the plate, catcher in pursuit. R3 slides into home plate, touching the base, then unitentionally kicks the ball. Runners do not advanced as a result of the kicked ball.

If this happened at any other base the runner would be out because he was touched by a batted ball over fair territory but what about once the runner has already scored?

What's the call??
Let's put a spin on this. You are all quoting FED and OBR. Let's say that this is an NCAA game - now what?

Hint: you need to know if F2 is an infielder in NCAA.
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Old Sun Jul 29, 2007, 03:05am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by UmpLarryJohnson
i am thinking the SAME--im not argueing a point of VIEW, but asking the QEUSTION. if he SCORED First then yes its PLAY ON as i see it if he TOUCHES it before reaching PLATE hes OUT. JMO
Sometimes it's FUN to read your posts. I SHOUT when I come to words that are CAPITALIZED for NO REASON. It REALLY sounds COMICAL when I read YOUR posts this way.
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Old Sun Jul 29, 2007, 01:25pm
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its a HABIT i gotinto to EMPHESIZE my words, i willtry to not do it SO often if its so bothersome--now can YOU answer my QUSTION about the play other than make COMMENTS on TANGENTS? thats (SM)FITTY's game. from your other posts isee you are betterthan that.
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