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Runner touches batted ball on home plate
Question from another umpire site:
Bases loaded, 2 outs. Batter hits a popper out in front of home plate. Catcher charges out but ball spins past the catcher(who doesn't touch the ball)back to home plate where it comes to rest, on top of the plate, catcher in pursuit. R3 slides into home plate, touching the base, then unitentionally kicks the ball. Runners do not advanced as a result of the kicked ball. If this happened at any other base the runner would be out because he was touched by a batted ball over fair territory but what about once the runner has already scored? What's the call?? |
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Ball has passed behind protected fielder, no other fielder has opportunity and r3 contacts ball directly behind fielder who missed ball. Besides, common sense tells me to let it go and sell the above interp if necessary. edit The downside to posting using your phone is that it takes so darn long to type it out and the Bob beats you to the punch line. |
WOW !!!!
You guys are good. I would have missed that completely. The catcher becomes a fielder and once the ball is by him, contact with the ball is allowed unintentionally. That is a superb analysis guys. Thank you. I can't believe I'll ever see this play, but I love the scenario and the resulting explanation. I'm easily impressed:D |
so it the OPPOSITE true?? if Catch never leave HIS position but the BALL GOES forward and spins back to PLATE--Runner from Third slides INTO it, hes OUT?
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There's always something new. I all my years of making up hypothetical plays, I never considered one in which catcher would be the fielder of consequence in a play where the runner is hit by a batted ball.
The OP, though, reminds me of the case play in which, with the runner on 1B stealing, the batter hits a roller past the mound, and with F6 and F4 both running toward 2B, the ball hits the runner as he slides in to 2B. As I recall, the ruling there is also "nothing" (since there was no play possible?). In the 7th game of the 1955 World Series, Phil Rizzuto, running from 2B, slid into a roller toward 3B and was called out, but that was because Don Hoak was right on top of the play trying to field the ball. |
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I don't know if the "If a fair ball goes through, or by, an infielder, and touches a runner immediately back of him...the umpire shall not declare the runner out" rule applies, unless you consider F2 an infielder. But that point is moot because the ball didn't contact a runner. It is a live ball, like it would be if it was unintentionally contacted any other authorized person on the field. |
i am thinking the SAME--im not argueing a point of VIEW, but asking the QEUSTION. if he SCORED First then yes its PLAY ON as i see it if he TOUCHES it before reaching PLATE hes OUT. JMO
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They might be able to help with that INTERMITTENT cap LOCK key. |
atta BOY walt.
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<TABLE cellSpacing=0 cellPadding=6 width="100%" border=0><TBODY><TR><TD class=alt2 style="BORDER-RIGHT: 1px inset; BORDER-TOP: 1px inset; BORDER-LEFT: 1px inset; BORDER-BOTTOM: 1px inset">Originally Posted by UmpLarryJohnson
i am thinking the SAME--im not argueing a point of VIEW, but asking the QEUSTION. if he SCORED First then yes its PLAY ON as i see it if he TOUCHES it before reaching PLATE hes OUT. JMO </TD></TR></TBODY></TABLE> Quote:
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Hint: you need to know if F2 is an infielder in NCAA. :eek: |
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its a HABIT i gotinto to EMPHESIZE my words, i willtry to not do it SO often if its so bothersome--now can YOU answer my QUSTION about the play other than make COMMENTS on TANGENTS? thats (SM)FITTY's game. from your other posts isee you are betterthan that.
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