Phelphs-Johjima crash

[greymule]

Anyone who saw Josh Phelps of the Yankees crash the Mariners' Kenji Johjima yesterday viewed a perfect example of a play that does not violate any MLB rule but merits retaliation. (Phelps was plunked next time up, and he seemed to accept that he deserved it, but even after warnings from the umpire, the Yankees then plunked somebody else. If there were ever obvious cases of throwing at batters, these were they.)

For those who didn't see it, Johjima did not have the ball, and his body was poised toward the mound. Even though Phelps had a clear path to the plate, he crashed Johjima—and then reached back and to his right to touch the plate.

It makes you wonder how dirty a play has to be to result in an ejection in MLB.

When I did Fed the crashing runner would of course be ejected, but I don't think we had the power to call him out. Is Fed still that way?

[waltjp]

In FED you'd definitely have malicious contact. The penalty states that the ball is immediately dead and the (offensive) player is ejected and declared out, unless he has already scored.

As you described the play it's obvious that the runner didn't touch the plate. However, if you ruled that he already passed the plate you'd count the run, which would be subject to appeal for missing the plate. Could you declare the runner out or do you have to wait for an appeal?

[johnnyg08]

Originally Posted by waltjp

In FED you'd definitely have malicious contact. The penalty states that the ball is immediately dead and the (offensive) player is ejected and declared out, unless he has already scored.

As you described the play it's obvious that the runner didn't touch the plate. However, if you ruled that he already passed the plate you'd count the run, which would be subject to appeal for missing the plate. Could you declare the runner out or do you have to wait for an appeal?

count the run and eject for malicious contact...if you call him out, you can't count the run.

[LilLeaguer]

Is it really lawful to tackle an offensive player who is waiting to catch a thrown ball? Only at the plate? Is bumping OK, but grabbing would not be?

What if the batter had advanced because Johjima didn't field the ball cleanly? Any difference?

[LilLeaguer]

The press reports that Washburn hit Phelps on his first pitch, but I just verified on the replay that he missed him (quite a bit inside at the waist) on the first pitch. Washburn's inability to hit the target left the umpire with a bit of a dilemma. (What it's been doing to Mariners fans this year is a different story.)

In any case, the umpire could have judged that Washburn was intentionally pitching at the batter. Heck, the whole stadium knew he was. But Mike Everitt let it play out, and even Phelps seemed to relax and let the ball hit him. On the second pitch, Washburn hit Phelps and both teams got the warning from PU.

[waltjp]

Originally Posted by johnnyg08

count the run and eject for malicious contact...if you call him out, you can't count the run.

Thanks, but this didn't really answer my question. My thinking on this this situation, if played under FED rules, is that the PU should be emphatic about calling time as soon as the contact is made and then declare that the run has scored. This will most likely prompt the defensive manager to come out. It should be explained to him that the ball was dead as soon as the contact occurred and that runner has passed the plate so the run counts. If he has any sense he'll tell you that the runner missed the plate to which you reply, "Correct, runner is out on appeal."

Then turn and face the other dugout and wait for the offensive manager.

[UmpJM]

Simply as a point of information, here is what the MLBUM has to say on the subject, under the discussion of Offensive Interference:

While contact may occur between a fielder and runner during a tag attempt, a runner is not allowed to use his hands or arms to commit an obviously malicious or unsportsmanlike act-such as grabbing, tackling, intentionally slapping at the baseball, punching, kicking, flagrantly using his arms or forearms, etc.-to commit an intentional act of interference unrelated to running the bases. Further, if in the judgment of the umpire such intentional act was to prevent a double play, the umpire would rule the batter-runner out as well (see Section 6.3, specifically Play (4)). Depending on the severity of the infraction, it is possible the player may be ejected for such conduct.

JM

[Kaliix]

Dang, okay...good. I'm not crazy. I was at the game and I coulda sworn that Washburn threw a pitch before he hit him. I was starting to doubt myself when I read the newspaper account.

Thanks!

Originally Posted by LilLeaguer

The press reports that Washburn hit Phelps on his first pitch, but I just verified on the replay that he missed him (quite a bit inside at the waist) on the first pitch. Washburn's inability to hit the target left the umpire with a bit of a dilemma. (What it's been doing to Mariners fans this year is a different story.)

In any case, the umpire could have judged that Washburn was intentionally pitching at the batter. Heck, the whole stadium knew he was. But Mike Everitt let it play out, and even Phelps seemed to relax and let the ball hit him. On the second pitch, Washburn hit Phelps and both teams got the warning from PU.

[LilLeaguer]

Originally Posted by CoachJM

Simply as a point of information, here is what the MLBUM has to say on the subject, under the discussion of Offensive Interference:

JM

But Johjima didn't have the ball yet. Any word on what a runner may do to a fielder not in possession of the ball, not blocking a basepath?