Throwing to an unoccupied base!

[UmpJM]

Bob J.,

Generally correct, but:

1) The entire free foot (or, in NCAA any part of the stride leg) must break the plane of the back of the rubber before F1 is committed to throw to second or home

2) In FED, F1 can throw to an unoccupied base if the runner even feints an advance.

#1 I completely agree.

#2. I'm confused. What you suggest is something I had never heard or read before.

So, I checked my sources, such as they are.

The rule (FED 6-2-4b) says it is a balk (with runners on base) when the pitcher is "...throwing or feinting to any unoccupied base when it is not an attempt to put out or drive back a runner;"

The "drive back" language led me to infer that the runner must be making a legitimate attempt (vs. a feint) to the unoccupied base, or this would be a balk.

Then I read Case Play 6.2.4 Situation A (b) which supports what you say - though it is certainly not what I would consider "crystal clear".

Then I checked my BRD which, though not directly addressing this situation, seems to support my initial assertion. (BRD #386, Note 404). I realize the BRD is not "gospel", but Carl is usually pretty right on this stuff.

Is there some other source or cite that spells this out more clearly? I know you know this stuff better than I do, so I'm not arguing - just trying to understand.

These "little differences" between FED & OBR are going to be the death of me.

Thanks.

JM