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Old Tue Jun 07, 2005, 01:58pm
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What's the ruling if an in contact pitcher throws to a fielder that is not covering a base (like to F6 in his normal position)? Would it matter if there is a runner nearby?
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Old Tue Jun 07, 2005, 02:23pm
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Cool

bossman72,

As long as it is not 1B, the pitcher steps to the base and the base is occupied (or, in the umpire's judgement a runner made an attempt to advance to the base (or feinted an attempt under FED)), this is perfectly legal.

If the step is to 1B, if in the umpire's judgement the F3 is not close enough to 1B to attempt a legitimate play on an R1, it is a balk.

JM
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