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Old Sat Mar 24, 2007, 09:07pm
GarthB GarthB is offline
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Join Date: Aug 2000
Location: Spokane, WA
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Quote:
Originally Posted by CoachJM
Bob J.,



#1 I completely agree.

#2. I'm confused. What you suggest is something I had never heard or read before.

So, I checked my sources, such as they are.

The rule (FED 6-2-4b) says it is a balk (with runners on base) when the pitcher is "...throwing or feinting to any unoccupied base when it is not an attempt to put out or drive back a runner;"

The "drive back" language led me to infer that the runner must be making a legitimate attempt (vs. a feint) to the unoccupied base, or this would be a balk.

Then I read Case Play 6.2.4 Situation A (b) which supports what you say - though it is certainly not what I would consider "crystal clear".

Then I checked my BRD which, though not directly addressing this situation, seems to support my initial assertion. (BRD #386, Note 404). I realize the BRD is not "gospel", but Carl is usually pretty right on this stuff.

Is there some other source or cite that spells this out more clearly? I know you know this stuff better than I do, so I'm not arguing - just trying to understand.

These "little differences" between FED & OBR are going to be the death of me.

Thanks.

JM
This language: "...throwing or feinting to any unoccupied base when it is not an attempt to put out or drive back a runner;" is actually one of the clearer passages of the FED rulebook in that, as our former state clinician, Tim Stevens, put it once, it means exactly what it says.

This is nothing new. I'm surprised that, according to your report, Carl may differ in his interpretation. I don't have the 2007 BRD handy so I can't check his latest thoughts, but the interpretation that Bob and Tim Stevens have given has been the definitive one for as long as I can remember.
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