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Old Fri Mar 02, 2007, 05:02pm
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Subject line has nothing to do with this post.

Preamble: Everyone knows that upon a call of BALK followed by infield batted ball, when the play is made cleanly SS to 1b, upon catch of ball by F3 who "gets" B-R.. we call TIME! and not "Out!". Then
"That's a balk, You, over there, You back to bat, etc"

NEW SITUATION

2-2 count, 2 outs. R2 and R3. Call of BALK! Pitcher delivers in the dirt. Batter swings and misses as ball skips by catcher, carroms off backstop.

R3 comes home. Very fast R2 rounds 3rd aggressively. Batter-Runner was very slow realizing situation and he FINALLY starts to run to 1st. Catcher recovers ball and now THROWS to 1st to GET Batter-Runner.

Base Ump now makes a call. OF COURSE.. since B-R does not make 1st the BALK is going to be enforced and B-R will return to bat with old 2-2 count.

But what is the call? He can't say TIME.. because who knows where R2 is... R2 may be steps from home, or F3 may have a play on him.

I want to call OUT! on this play and let whatever (if any) continuous action finish, then call time, then enforce the balk. But again, I'm not married to it.
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Old Fri Mar 02, 2007, 05:17pm
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Now, you can call "out" if you want, but the call of 'balk' was made. BR never made it to first, so you enforce the balk. However, being this was the third out, there is a potential for all heck breaking loose.

My thought is to NOT call the out, and enforce the balk, minus all the confusion that calling a third out might cause.
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Old Fri Mar 02, 2007, 05:53pm
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Cool

mikebran,

The call in your second sitch is exactly the same as in your 1st sitch. As soon as the conditions for disregarding the balk cease to exist, you call "TIME!" and enforce the balk.

Calling OUT! in your second sitch would be incorrect because the batter is NOT out. Whether the R2 is 2" or 80' from home has absolutely no bearing on the call or the ruling. Since the conditions for disregarding the balk were not met, R2 is going to 3B. F3 cannot make a play on him because the ball became dead as soon as the batter failed to safely reach 1B.

Now a more interesting scenario would be if, in your 2nd situation, the F2 chose to play on the advancing R2 (rather than the BR) - and was successful in putting him out. While the BR was just halfway to 1B let's say. What would you do then?

JM
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Old Fri Mar 02, 2007, 06:48pm
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In your senario, I have R2 out, BR- techncally speaking awarded first base. and the end of the inning.
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Old Fri Mar 02, 2007, 09:39pm
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3apps, please explain your ruling...
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Old Sat Mar 03, 2007, 08:19am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by RPatrino
3apps, please explain your ruling...
It's the same as "R2, R3, two outs, coach (for some reason) callas for the squeeze play. BR bunts the ball, R3 scores, R2 continues around third and is put out before BR reaches first."

Since B1 became BR his time at bat is over, and B2 leads off the next inning.
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Old Sun Mar 04, 2007, 01:05pm
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In the originally presented sitch, R2 was not put out. However, using 'revision of history' the situation has morphed into the R2 being put out.

I agree with the ruling on the 'revised' scenario, and disagree in the original.
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