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Old Sat Mar 03, 2007, 09:04pm
UmpJM UmpJM is offline
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Pete,

I'm not sure which of the 3 situations descibed in this thread you are specifically referring to.

I understand the point that (under OBR) when a balk is followed immediately by a pitch or throw the umpire does not call time until play relaxes or some runner did not reach his advance base. I also understand that a runner who attempts to advance beyond his advance base in this situation does so at risk of being put out.

What I am trying to get a clarification on is the specific situation I posed where, following a balk on a 3rd strike not caught pitch, the R2 was put out (for the 3rd out of the half inning) at home on a play at the plate prior to the BR reaching 1B.

By the "letter" of the rule, the balk should be enforced because the BR did not reach 1B safely; therefore, the conditions for disregarding the balk were not met.

3appleshigh suggests that the BR "...techncally speaking awarded first base...", which I personally find insupportable.

Bob Jenkins then followed with the suggestion that the batter had become a runner and completed his time at bat.

Now, if the balk were to be disregarded, that would make perfect sense to me.

However, if the balk is NOT disregarded, the pitch is nullified and the batter would be returned to the plate with the same count he had prior to the balk.

Now I can't find any authoritative source that addresses this specific situation. Absent anything to the contrary, I would be inclined to enforce the balk because the BR did not reach 1B safely.

JM
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