Top Cat Close friends call him TC

[UmpJM]

BigTex,

Again, interesting theory, but it doesn't really jibe with

7.01
A runner acquires the right to an unoccupied base when he touches it before he is out. He is then entitled to it until he is put out, or forced to vacate it for another runner legally entitled to that base.

very well, does it?

Now I certainly don't have anything definitive that says the balk should be enforced in this situation - but that seems the ruling most in accord with what the rules say, at least to me.

And I certainly haven't seen anything definitive, or convincing, that says the balk should be disregarded.

JM

[umpduck11]

Originally Posted by PWL

R2 made the third out of the inning after going past his advance/award base before B/R reached 1B.
BTW-It still wouldn't have mattered if the B/R acquired 1B. Same result, balk nullified.

Maybe I'm blind, but I don't read the OS as saying R2 was put out ; I read
that F2 made a play on BR, and it was left up in the air as to R2's position
after he "rounds 3rd aggressively".