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Wed Sep 27, 2006, 07:12pm
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7.8
However, if first base is not occupied and all other runners do not advance at least one base on the play, the balk penalty prevails: If an unforced runner cannot advance on a ball four balk situation because time is to be called as soon as F2 catches the pitch, then why is the above provision provided. It either implys that an unforced runner can advance, or it's a useless statement. Turn it around and maybe you'll see what I'm getting at. However, if first base is not occupied and all other runners do advance at least one base on the play, the balk penalty is disregarded. Tim. Last edited by BigUmp56; Wed Sep 27, 2006 at 07:15pm. 
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