Balk Enforcement

[BigUmp56]

Here's the contradiction I see. 7.8 seems to imply that an unforced runner can advance on a play after a balk on ball four. This contradicts 7.8 where time is to be called as soon as the catcher catches the ball. For all practical purposes it doesn't make a big difference as if the balk is enforced R2 would be given third. However, if it's not to be enforced he would be in jeapordy should he advance beyond third.


Tim.

[ctblu40]

Originally Posted by BigUmp56

Here's the contradiction I see. 7.8 seems to imply that an unforced runner can advance on a play after a balk on ball four. This contradicts 7.8 where time is to be called as soon as the catcher catches the ball. For all practical purposes it doesn't make a big difference as if the balk is enforced R2 would be given third. However, if it's not to be enforced he would be in jeapordy should he advance beyond third.


Tim.

I'm not see the same thing as you, Tim. I'm reading it to say that if a runner is not forced to advance because of ball four, the ball becomes dead and the umpire should enforce the balk.

I'm really struggling to see what you perceive to be a contradiction.

[BigUmp56]

7.8

However, if first base is not occupied and all other runners do not advance at least one base on the play, the balk penalty prevails:


If an unforced runner cannot advance on a ball four balk situation because time is to be called as soon as F2 catches the pitch, then why is the above provision provided. It either implys that an unforced runner can advance, or it's a useless statement. Turn it around and maybe you'll see what I'm getting at.

However, if first base is not occupied and all other runners do advance at least one base on the play, the balk penalty is disregarded.


Tim.

[ctblu40]

Originally Posted by BigUmp56

7.8

However, if first base is not occupied and all other runners do not advance at least one base on the play, the balk penalty prevails:


If an unforced runner cannot advance on a ball four balk situation because time is to be called as soon as F2 catches the pitch, then why is the above provision provided. It either implys that an unforced runner can advance, or it's a useless statement. Turn it around and maybe you'll see what I'm getting at.

However, if first base is not occupied and all other runners do advance at least one base on the play, the balk penalty is disregarded.


Tim.

Now I get where you're coming from... I think it's a useless statement.

[NFump]

What if the ball four pitch is a passed ball/wild pitch?

[Dave Hensley]

Originally Posted by BigUmp56

Here's the contradiction I see. 7.8 seems to imply that an unforced runner can advance on a play after a balk on ball four. This contradicts 7.8 where time is to be called as soon as the catcher catches the ball. For all practical purposes it doesn't make a big difference as if the balk is enforced R2 would be given third. However, if it's not to be enforced he would be in jeapordy should he advance beyond third.


Tim.

Tim, I think what you're seeing as a contradiction is due to the not-explicitly-stated but still relevant difference between (1) a caught pitch, in which case time is called as soon as the pitch is caught, and the balk is enforced unless it was ball 4 and all runners are forced, and (2) an uncaught (wild pitch or passed ball) ball 4, in which the ball is left live because runners are free to advance BEYOND their protected one base award.

If you layer the "when to call time on a balk" instructions contained in the MLB Manual and the PBUC Manual into the rulings you're citing, I think you eliminate any perceived conflict or contradiction, and achieve a clearer understanding of exactly how to enforce a balk call, in every possible situation.

[BigUmp56]

You're right, Dave. I hadn't considered that the part of 7.8 that I was questioning was addressing the 'otherwise' provision of 8.05 penalty.


Tim.