ball hits runner

[Justme]

Originally Posted by BigUmp56

There are many things that are not black and white in the rule book alone. While it's true that the rule book does say passes a fielder, it also says it must pass "immediately" back of the fielder. You'll find that Evans, and Roder define "immediately" exactly as Dave and Rich have. That would be within a step and a reach.


Tim.

Just for my education, where do the OBR's say "it must pass "immediately" back of the fielder"?

Wait I found it...

7.09
(k)A fair ball touches him on fair territory before touching a fielder. If a fair ball goes through, or by, an infielder, and touches a runner immediately back of him, or touches the runner after having been deflected by a fielder, the umpire shall not declare the runner out for being touched by a batted ball. In making such decision the umpire must be convinced that the ball passed through, or by, the fielder, and that no other infielder had the chance to make a play on the ball. If, in the judgment of the umpire, the runner deliberately and intentionally kicks such a batted ball on which the infielder has missed a play, then the runner shall be called out for interference.
PENALTY FOR INTERFERENCE: The runner is out and the ball is dead.

Consider this... if the fielder dives for the ball and misses the ball (distance of miss is unknown) and his dive carries his body in front of the runner then the fielder is now "immediately" back of him. I think that the key questions here are "Did another infielder have a chance to make a play?" or "Did the runner deliberately and intentionally kick the ball on which the infielder has missed a play?" It would seem that interference would be a tough call to make if the infielder dove for the ball, missed it by a foot or two and then the runner was hit by the ball when no other infielder could have made a play. JMHO