ball hits runner
 

check out this question from the eofficials site. i don't understand how the answer could be correct. i thought the ball would stay live in this situation.
(would it be any different in fed or obr?)
thanks for any help

ncaa rules
Question:

R3 and R1. The first baseman, who is playing in front of the runner, dives to his right on a batted ground ball but cannot make the play. The second baseman is squeezing the middle of the infield and has no play on the ball. The batted ball strikes the runner, who started from a position behind the first baseman. (REVIEW)


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Answer:

A. The ball is dead when it contacts the runner at first.
B. Score the runner from third base.
C. Return the runner to third base.
D. Award the batter first base.
E. Call the runner at first base, out.
F. Allow the play to continue after the batted ball hits the runner at first base.
G. A, C, D and E
H. All of the above


Correct answer: G. A, C, D and E

Rule Link(s):
Baseball > NCAA > Rule 8: Base Running > Section 2-g: Batter Becomes Base Runner

ggk,

What's confusing to you?

This is offensive interference, plain and simple. The ball is dead, the runner (who was hit by the fair batted ball) is out, the BR is awarded 1B, other runners return to their TOP base unless forced by the BR's award.

No difference FED or OBR.

JM

I'm confused too. How is this interference? Please explain.

Seems like an incorrect answer to me.

NFHS & OBR are the same as NCAA 8-2-g

OBR

6.09
The batter becomes a runner when --
(c) A fair ball, after having passed a fielder other than the pitcher, or after having been touched by a fielder, including the pitcher, shall touch an umpire or runner on fair territory;

7.08
Any runner is out when --
(f) He is touched by a fair ball in fair territory before the ball has touched or passed an infielder. The ball is dead and no runner may score, nor runners advance, except runners forced to advance. EXCEPTION: If a runner is touching his base when touched by an Infield Fly, he is not out, although the batter is out;
Rule 7.08(f) Comment: If two runners are touched by the same fair ball, only the first one is out because the ball is instantly dead.
If runner is touched by an Infield Fly when he is not touching his base, both runner and batter are out.


NFHS

8-4
Art.2
Any runner is out when he:
(k) is contacted by a fair batted ball before it touches an infielder, or after it passes any infielder, except the pitcher, and the umpire is convinced that another infielder has a play.

Yeah, how is this interference? F3 dove for the ball and missed and F4 had no possible play on the ball. Sounds like a live ball to me. Am I missing something here?

The play described states that the runner is BEHIND the first baseman, thus, the ball has to PASS the first baseman, thus, if it hits the runner, it is NOT interference!

I am confused too!

I am also confused how a few MISSED that the runner was BEHIND the first baseman. It really pays to pay attention! ;)

Unless it was intentional the runner would be out right? But yes, I do not see how the play described is interference on the runner.

The ruling is that since the first baseman had to dive for the ball, and he missed, then the ball was not within his immediate reach, and therefore the play does not satisfy the exception to the runner interference rule. Had the ball passed through the legs of, or within the immediate reach of the first baseman, and then hit the runner immediately back of him, then and only then would the ball remain alive.

Following up on Dave -- passed the infielder for purposes of this rule means the ball must be within a step and a reach of the fielder making the play. A diving fielder missing is not within a step and a reach, so the runner is expected to avoid contact with the fair batted ball.

The purpose of the rule is to protect a runner when there is no chance he can avoid the ball because he is screened by a nearby fielder.

I am sorry, but I disagree. You cannot back this interpretation in the rule book.

The rule ONLY says that if a batted ball touches a runner BEFORE IT PASSES A FIELDER, he is out. NOTHING ELSE! There is NOTHING about being "withing reach, or within a step".

This is scary discussion. eofficial simply got this wrong. I have had numerous times (okay, maybe 3 or 4 times....) in 20 plus years where the infielders were playing in, and a batted ball touches a runner leading off at second base. Never an arguement, and NEVER had a partner call it any different.

Intentionally touching a ball after it has passed a fielder, indeed I would have interference.

There are many things that are not black and white in the rule book alone. While it's true that the rule book does say passes a fielder, it also says it must pass "immediately" back of the fielder. You'll find that Evans, and Roder define "immediately" exactly as Dave and Rich have. That would be within a step and a reach.


Tim.

Tim is right, the rules don't exactly specify what 'passed' is, so JEA, J/R, et al have 'interpreted' this to mean within a 'step and reach' of the fielder. I think the test question was worded as 'diving first baseman' exactly so as to call that interp into play....thus making Dave and Rich correct.

If the fielder dives and still has no play on the batted ball, then by settled interp the 'passed' part of the rule does not apply. Interference, runner out.

That is all fine and good, but "immediately" IS something listed in the rule book. There is NOWHERE in the rule book that states "within a step", or "within reach", and for very good obvious reasons! Immediately is FAR less of a judgement than "withing a step", or "within reach". FAR too many factors come into play!

Doesn't matter here though. Simply, eofficial got this wrong. I stand by that 110%! I will NEVER call this the way they list it, unless the rule book was changed to reflect this scenario as described. I still might quit after that, or simply ignore the rule, because it would be a horsecrap call to have to make!

There is also precedent on what "passed" means, and this comes from a batted ball touching an umpire before it has "passed" an infielder. If this batted ball touched an umpire, what would your call be?

I can tell you with certainty that precedent with other rulings come into play here more than some "interpretation" on a ruling that has no precedent! ;)