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Papa C ...
I stumbled on to an article about fair/foul the other day while looking for some online umpire reading. I asked the author of the article/quiz about the question we are posing here. He said fair and cited this rational,
"The actual ground coverd by the width of the foul line is all fair. So if any part of the ball is over the actual line, the part of the the ball is over fair territory - making it a fair ball. Ratioanle: Suppose the ball where to continue to roll in this position over the line directly along the line with 1/3 of the ball foul and the rest over the line (fair). Eventually it would hit the bag and, by rule, it would be a fair ball! How could a ball having the exact same position with respect to the foul line, rolling up the line, be foul one momment and fair the next (upon touching the bag) when its position over the foul line never has changed?" This is from a fairly respected umpire, one who has your respect as well. I have seen you two disagree (friendly of course) from time to time though. Bob
__________________
Bob L |
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