[blarson]

I stumbled on to an article about fair/foul the other day while looking for some online umpire reading. I asked the author of the article/quiz about the question we are posing here. He said fair and cited this rational,

"The actual ground coverd by the width of the foul line
is all fair. So if any part of the ball is over the
actual line, the part of the the ball is over fair
territory - making it a fair ball. Ratioanle: Suppose
the ball where to continue to roll in this position over
the line directly along the line with 1/3 of the ball
foul and the rest over the line (fair). Eventually it
would hit the bag and, by rule, it would be a fair
ball! How could a ball having the exact same position
with respect to the foul line, rolling up the line, be
foul one momment and fair the next (upon touching the
bag) when its position over the foul line never has
changed?"

This is from a fairly respected umpire, one who has your respect as well. I have seen you two disagree (friendly of course) from time to time though.

Bob