Passed Runner

[blueump]

First time I've ever seen this:

R1 on 1st. BR hits a long high fly ball down the first base line. It looks as if it may go foul. R1 for whatever reason goes back to first in an attempt to tag and go to second if the ball is caught. He's standing there with one foot on the bag as the BR takes a big round of first base, taking about 3 steps toward second.

The wind catches the ball, and it drops in (fair) just inside the foul lines. R1 takes off for 2nd where he arrives safely while the BR returns to 1st base.

Do we have an out for a passed runner?

[BigUmp56]

Absolutely. Why wouldn't you have an out for passing?

Tim.

[mcrowder]

Yes you do. I don't understand the question.

[mbyron]

Maybe he wants to know which one's out.

[SeattleMetroUmp]

BlueUmp the batter runner is out. However, please keep in mind you do not immediately kill the play. Just allow all action to take place and once all play has ceased call time and call the batter runner out!!! Simple as that!!

Hope that helps!!!


SeattleMetroUmp

[mcrowder]

No you don't wait for the play to stop. You rule BR out right then. Why would you wait... the play could continue and your failure to rule the out when it happened could cause defense to have to play on BR unnecessarily.

[NIump50]

Originally Posted by mcrowder

No you don't wait for the play to stop. You rule BR out right then. Why would you wait... the play could continue and your failure to rule the out when it happened could cause defense to have to play on BR unnecessarily.

If you kill the play immediately you deny the defense the opportunity to make a play on the preceding runner or other runners.
I'd verbalize and indicate which runner is out and let play continue.

[blueump]

Originally Posted by NIump50

If you kill the play immediately you deny the defense the opportunity to make a play on the preceding runner or other runners.
I'd verbalize and indicate which runner is out and let play continue.

Say then the defense throws the ball to second. Do you still have a force here or could the runner return to first base?

In the case I described, there was a moment when both runners were both standing on first base at the same time. The BR rounded first and took a few steps toward second. Then returned to the bag when the ball dropped in fair.

If I immediately called the BR for passing R1, that would have effectively removed the force. But isn't this a delayed dead ball situation? The BR is called out after all plays are over, and the force remains. If the ball had reached 2nd before R1, he would be out on the force and the BR would be called out for passing R1.

Is this correct?

[Rich Ives]

Originally Posted by blueump

Say then the defense throws the ball to second. Do you still have a force here or could the runner return to first base?

In the case I described, there was a moment when both runners were both standing on first base at the same time. The BR rounded first and took a few steps toward second. Then returned to the bag when the ball dropped in fair.

If I immediately called the BR for passing R1, that would have effectively removed the force. But isn't this a delayed dead ball situation? The BR is called out after all plays are over, and the force remains. If the ball had reached 2nd before R1, he would be out on the force and the BR would be called out for passing R1.

Is this correct?

The BR is immediately out - removing the force.

It isn't any kind of dead ball situation.

[mrumpire11]

point at the runner in violation and declare him out. this is a live ball situation. once the following runner is declared out, the force is removed. this would also be a case of a time play, if there are 2 out and runners scoring on the play.

[wmandino]

Baseloaded no outs BR hits a shot in the left field corner. It clears the bases and he gets a triple. R1,R2,and R3 all score, after R3 scores R2 realizes he missed home plate and touches it. Is R2 out for "passing" a runner, and what if the defensive coach sees this and appeals the play on R2. Just curious.

[BigUmp56]

R2 isn't out for passing, but he would be called out on appeal. He cannot correct his error after R3 scored.


Tim.

[Rich Ives]

Originally Posted by wmandino

Baseloaded no outs BR hits a shot in the left field corner. It clears the bases and he gets a triple. R1,R2,and R3 all score, after R3 scores R2 realizes he missed home plate and touches it. Is R2 out for "passing" a runner, and what if the defensive coach sees this and appeals the play on R2. Just curious.

Not a pass. 1) you have to physically pass the runner. 2) Read 7.12

[wmandino]

So if I'm reading this correctly R2 can go back and touch homeplate after R3 has touched it. Also if he did not touch it and the touch is appealed R2 is out for missing the plate and R1 and R3 score.?

[mcrowder]

Originally Posted by NIump50

If you kill the play immediately you deny the defense the opportunity to make a play on the preceding runner or other runners.
I'd verbalize and indicate which runner is out and let play continue.

Now I truly have no idea what you're talking about. When did I say kill the play?

You're 2nd sentence is almost exactly what I said - call the batter-runner out and keep playing. Are you agreeing with me or disagreeing? I was disagreeing with Seattle's statement that you wait until play is over and THEN rule BR out. No - call him out when he's out, just like any other play.