Passed Runner

[mcrowder]

No you don't wait for the play to stop. You rule BR out right then. Why would you wait... the play could continue and your failure to rule the out when it happened could cause defense to have to play on BR unnecessarily.

[NIump50]

Originally Posted by mcrowder

No you don't wait for the play to stop. You rule BR out right then. Why would you wait... the play could continue and your failure to rule the out when it happened could cause defense to have to play on BR unnecessarily.

If you kill the play immediately you deny the defense the opportunity to make a play on the preceding runner or other runners.
I'd verbalize and indicate which runner is out and let play continue.

[blueump]

Originally Posted by NIump50

If you kill the play immediately you deny the defense the opportunity to make a play on the preceding runner or other runners.
I'd verbalize and indicate which runner is out and let play continue.

Say then the defense throws the ball to second. Do you still have a force here or could the runner return to first base?

In the case I described, there was a moment when both runners were both standing on first base at the same time. The BR rounded first and took a few steps toward second. Then returned to the bag when the ball dropped in fair.

If I immediately called the BR for passing R1, that would have effectively removed the force. But isn't this a delayed dead ball situation? The BR is called out after all plays are over, and the force remains. If the ball had reached 2nd before R1, he would be out on the force and the BR would be called out for passing R1.

Is this correct?

[Rich Ives]

Originally Posted by blueump

Say then the defense throws the ball to second. Do you still have a force here or could the runner return to first base?

In the case I described, there was a moment when both runners were both standing on first base at the same time. The BR rounded first and took a few steps toward second. Then returned to the bag when the ball dropped in fair.

If I immediately called the BR for passing R1, that would have effectively removed the force. But isn't this a delayed dead ball situation? The BR is called out after all plays are over, and the force remains. If the ball had reached 2nd before R1, he would be out on the force and the BR would be called out for passing R1.

Is this correct?

The BR is immediately out - removing the force.

It isn't any kind of dead ball situation.

[mrumpire11]

point at the runner in violation and declare him out. this is a live ball situation. once the following runner is declared out, the force is removed. this would also be a case of a time play, if there are 2 out and runners scoring on the play.

[mcrowder]

Originally Posted by NIump50

If you kill the play immediately you deny the defense the opportunity to make a play on the preceding runner or other runners.
I'd verbalize and indicate which runner is out and let play continue.

Now I truly have no idea what you're talking about. When did I say kill the play?

You're 2nd sentence is almost exactly what I said - call the batter-runner out and keep playing. Are you agreeing with me or disagreeing? I was disagreeing with Seattle's statement that you wait until play is over and THEN rule BR out. No - call him out when he's out, just like any other play.