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Sun Oct 24, 2004, 04:09am
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In all that I have read about obstruction, it is always the umpire who signaled obstruction in the first place that
1)determines what base the runner is protected to and that umpire may revise that award upon considering action that occured after the obstruction, 2)signals time (kills the play) when a play is being made on the obstructed runner at the base to which he is being protected to. It seems that in Dave's example, it would be appropriate to protect the runner to home considering the closeness of the eventual play at home and the fact that the runner actually tried to advance to home even though he was obstructed. If the BR would have successfully advanced to second on a throw home in which R2 was safe (ie. not obstructed), then he would likely be placed on second when the play is killed because of a play on R2 at his protected base. J/R states that per MLB 6.21, the umpires are allowed to confer in deciding the award of bases when there is obstruction with no play.
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Well I am certainly wiser than this man. It is only too likely that neither of us has any knowledge to boast of; but he thinks that he knows something which he does not know, whereas I am quite conscious of my ignorance. At any rate it seems that I am wiser than he is to this small extent, that I do not think that I know what I do not know. ~Socrates 
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