Answer to second one-question test

[Bfair]

Confusing issue. Fed rulebook does not define "feint" nor does OBR. Fed casebook 6.2.4d refers to a pitcher that "feints toward third with a movement of the shoulder". Therefore, they acknowledge a feint does not have to include arm movement (fake throw). Rulebook states in 6.2.4b "failing to step with the non-pivot foot ....when throwing or feinting there...". It does not state "feinting a throw there".

I felt purpose and intent of rule was to assure "step to base with non-pivot foot" BEFORE throw or feint. I did not see intent to necessarily include arm movement.

I have seen many occassions where, with runner on 2nd, F1 will continue with his non-pivot foot toward 2nd yet make no arm motion whatsoever. Your interpretation that there must be arm movement to be a feint would cause this motion to 2nd to be a balk, would it not? I have never balked nor seen this action to 2nd balked because of lack of a fake throw. Would you balk this action because of lack of arm movement?

Does JEA, J/R, or anything else state that there must be arm motion to be a feint? I would think that any body movement in direction of base, runner, etc. could be interpreted as a feint. What supports interpretation that there must be arm movement to be a feint? Please advise.