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Old Thu Dec 14, 2000, 10:50am
bob jenkins bob jenkins is offline
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Join Date: Aug 1999
Posts: 18,188
Quote:
Originally posted by Bfair
In closing I ask ANYONE who may feel arm movement is REQUIRED to address situation of F1 legally bringing non-pivot foot to 2nd but not feinting a throw. We all know this has not been called a balk, yet according to the interpretation requiring arm motion it should be. Have we been missing it for all these years ??? Why has no one addressed this situation except those favoring interpretation that arm movement is not necessary?

I have never seen a pitcher step toward second (as in a feint) and not move his hands as in the start of a throw (which isn't implying that the pitcher made a full throwing motion and jsut didn't release the ball).

You seem to be implying that a picher goes to the set position, then steps toward second and ends up in the "set position" again, but now facing the opposite direction. I've never seen that.

Read the case (6.2.4d) again ... "He might ... step and feint, then turn..." "If F1 steps and feints to first, ..." Think about how the rule (and Carl's play) would be different if the case book didn't have the words "and feint" in those sentences.
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