Batter Requesting Time During Pitch

[Spence]

Originally Posted by ilyazhito

In FED, the rule is very simple. Since a batter must have at least 1 foot in the box at all times, any time he leaves the box without permission, and the pitcher pitches, it is an automatic strike.
Holding the hand is a request for time, but the umpire is allowed to (not) grant it. If he does not, the batter must face a pitch.

The quoted rule support that in the A and the B. What does the C mean when it says "holds up hand to request time?" It doesn't say AND if A or B happens.

So if JUST C happens is it an automatic strike as it reads? Let's assume batter holds up hand to request time as pitcher is starting his motion and the pitcher continues with his motion and delivers the pitch.

Strike regardless of location?

[ilyazhito]

It shouldn't be an automatic strike. Oftentimes, the rule books, especially on the high school level, are badly written, and result in nonsense like calling a strike on a batter who has not left the box. If just C happens, I am calling the pitch based on where it is. Since the batter has not left the box, he should still be able to face the pitch, IMO.

[Spence]

Originally Posted by ilyazhito

It shouldn't be an automatic strike. Oftentimes, the rule books, especially on the high school level, are badly written, and result in nonsense like calling a strike on a batter who has not left the box. If just C happens, I am calling the pitch based on where it is. Since the batter has not left the box, he should still be able to face the pitch, IMO.

Wholeheartedly agree with your thinking. I'm wondering if NFHS has clarified what option C means as far as how we enforce this. If they don't mean to issue an automatic strike with JUST a raised hand then I'm not sure why they even included it since one or both feet out of the box would be enough.

[umpjim]

Originally Posted by Spence

Wholeheartedly agree with your thinking. I'm wondering if NFHS has clarified what option C means as far as how we enforce this. If they don't mean to issue an automatic strike with JUST a raised hand then I'm not sure why they even included it since one or both feet out of the box would be enough.

It's included so you don't balk a pitcher who stops his delivery due to a raised hand. I agree if it doesn't affect the pitcher we would just call the pitch.

[BSBAL18]

My only issue with some of these threads "calling it how it is", is after the play is done, the coach comes out and cites the rule book. "It clearly states here that a strike is to be called". So am i supposed to say "it's badly written rule" ? A bad rule is still a rule, so if it is a clear statement of penalty (i.e. "A strike shall be called). NFHS only here. I would have a hard time arguing my case with a coach asking about what just happened....

But thats why i read all these forum posts Live and learn from the best.

[Rich Ives]

Originally Posted by BSBAL18

My only issue with some of these threads "calling it how it is", is after the play is done, the coach comes out and cites the rule book. "It clearly states here that a strike is to be called". So am i supposed to say "it's badly written rule" ? A bad rule is still a rule, so if it is a clear statement of penalty (i.e. "A strike shall be called). NFHS only here. I would have a hard time arguing my case with a coach asking about what just happened....

But thats why i read all these forum posts Live and learn from the best.

The NFHS
case play says "if a pitch is delivered a strike shall be called"

[Spence]

Originally Posted by Rich Ives

The NFHS
case play says "if a pitch is delivered a strike shall be called"

That's how I read it yet many umpires disagree OR refuse to call it. I'll call it if it's the intent of the rule unless someone shows us an interp that says differently.