Sharing what I learn here...

[youngump]

Originally Posted by AtlUmpSteve

So, Alex, if F3 is running hard at the ball to KEEP IT FOUL, how can there be interference of a PLAY (defined as an attempt to make an OUT)?? You have merely restated the conundrum created by an unspecific rule.

That is the crux of the issue.

If that's the crux of the issue, then how do you rule in this situation: slow pitch game, 0-2 count. R1 at 3rd, R2 at 2nd, BR hits a weird bouncer into foul territory that hits a rock and is starting to head fair. R1 has already scored when the First baseman tries to glove the ball in foul territory to keep it foul. Seeing this the very alert BR pushes his glove out of the way. The ball rolls into first base causing it to come to rest.

Now same issue, but on the third base side with R2 committing the interference.

In all cases the attempt to field the foul ball is an attempt to get an out and therefore a play.

Further, if it's impossible to interfere with an attempt to field this ball, then not only is it not interference in this situation but the runners have done nothing that would make the ball dead. And as soon as the ball is fair, there's no play left, so we're just going to make no call here? And what of all the rules that talk about interference while the ball is over fair territory?

To me the crux of the matter is that the rule is very badly drafted. I'm pretty sure the expected call is: if the ball is in foul territory when the defense is interfered with and it's not a fly ball then we simply have a foul ball. I can't believe that the rule book really meant to distinguish between the results of the first and second play I listed above.