Retired Runner Hit with Throw

[Big Slick]

Originally Posted by MD Longhorn

12.9.7 says otherwise. You've quoted the rule that tells you that some interference must be intentional, but others can be unintentional. To know the difference, you must read the rest of the section. 12.9.7 very explicitly tells you that interference with a throw MUST be intentional - no intent, no int.

Different rule. In the OP, R1 is RETIRED, which is covered in the rule I quoted (12.19.5) and there is this:

12-9-11 When, after being declared out or after scoring, a base runner interferes with a defensive player's opportunity to make a play on another base runner.

There is no requirement of intent for a RETIRED runner, which is the OP:

F6 tosses the ball to F4 at second base to retire R1, who is now just jogging towards the bag. F4 then throws to first to make a play on B2, and the throw hits R1 in the shoulder while she's between the two bases.

[Cecil4]

1) Nice to remember those who have been so valuable contributing to this forum; although most apparently stopped participating.

2) It is almost 10 years since this topic started, same question as earlier and as said repeated many, many time since; by umpires all over.

3) If there is INT, and the BR has reached 1st before the INT occurs; the BR can not be out as succeeding runner because of the INT.
It would be the runner closest to home, which of course could be the runner at 1st.

4) I hate to use HTBT to not answer, but that is part of the examples.

5) I doubt we will ever resolve this issue, because it is not clearly covered in any rules book.
Like I said, over 10 years with very expert voices and not resolved.