Softball Trivia

[Umpteenth]

Originally Posted by Manny A

Just out of curiosity, when and why did 8-2-I change its wording? I have a PDF version of the 2008 rule book, and here's how 8-2-I was written back then:

"[Batter-runner is out] When an infield fly is declared. If the fair batted ball hits the batter-runner before reaching first base, the ball is dead and the infield fly is invoked."

The latest version of the rule runs both sentences together so that it reads,

"When an infield fly is declared and the fair batted ball hits the batter-runner before reaching first base."

Why the change? Heck, you could almost read it as saying that the ball HAS to hit the batter-runner to invoke the IFR!

That is how the rule is written. I'm sure that is not the intent.

I write for a living. I cringe each year as I read rule books, because often the rules are not worded well and do not impart the intent of the rule.

"When an infield fly is declared and the fair batted ball hits the batter-runner before reaching first base."
Worded this way, the batter-runner would NOT be out unless both pieces were true - infield fly must be declared, AND the fair batted ball must hit the batter-runner before reaching first base. A coach who has a grasp of English could argue this well (but would still lose, as we all understand the intent of the rule). But that is an argument we, as umpires, should never have to face. IMO, the rule was much clearer in previous editions.