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Old Tue Jun 14, 2011, 06:27am
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Join Date: Mar 2009
Location: East Central, FL
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Gulf Coast Blue View Post
If the runners foot was on top of F2's foot on top of the plate.......I am going to assume that some part of the runners foot touched the plate.

Joel
I think many umpires would do the same ("see" the touch or assume the touch of the plate)

However, aftrer further clarification (ASA, F2 did not have the ball), sounds like an obstruction call anyway...
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