Legal touching of home plate?

[HugoTafurst]

Originally Posted by Gulf Coast Blue

If the runners foot was on top of F2's foot on top of the plate.......I am going to assume that some part of the runners foot touched the plate.

Joel

I think many umpires would do the same ("see" the touch or assume the touch of the plate)

However, aftrer further clarification (ASA, F2 did not have the ball), sounds like an obstruction call anyway...

[NCASAUmp]

Originally Posted by HugoTafurst

However, aftrer further clarification (ASA, F2 did not have the ball), sounds like an obstruction call anyway...

Exactly what I was getting at.

[Gulf Coast Blue]

Originally Posted by HugoTafurst

I think many umpires would do the same ("see" the touch or assume the touch of the plate)

However, aftrer further clarification (ASA, F2 did not have the ball), sounds like an obstruction call anyway...

Originally Posted by NCASAUmp

Exactly what I was getting at.

Quite possibly.......but that would be moot since I had the runner touching the plate.......

Joel