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Old Sat Oct 30, 2010, 08:44am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by BretMan View Post
I don't work much slow pitch. How does 8-4-F(2) factor in here (specifically, the part about the pitcher having possession of the ball)?
Not a damn thing. Why do you ask?
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Old Sat Oct 30, 2010, 10:26am
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Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA View Post
Not a damn thing. Why do you ask?
Because that rule seems to put in place a qualifier about the pitcher having possession of the ball.
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Old Sat Oct 30, 2010, 10:46am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by BretMan View Post
Because that rule seems to put in place a qualifier about the pitcher having possession of the ball.
Yes, but this rule deals with the ball when it hasn't been put in play by the batter.
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I haven't decided if I should call it from the dugout or the outfield. Apparently, both have really great views!

Screw green, it ain't easy being blue!

I won't be coming here that much anymore. I might check in now and again.
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Old Sat Oct 30, 2010, 11:07am
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Originally Posted by NCASAUmp View Post
Yes, but this rule deals with the ball when it hasn't been put in play by the batter.
What sort of "play" is the "all immediate play being apparently completed" refering to?
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Old Sat Oct 30, 2010, 11:58am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by BretMan View Post
What sort of "play" is the "all immediate play being apparently completed" refering to?
When the runners appear to no longer be advancing and when the defense doesn't appear to be making a play on a runner.

I usually wait until the ball is in the infield (or at the edge) with runners either standing on their bases or are returning to a base and are so close to the base that no play is imminent.
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Dave

I haven't decided if I should call it from the dugout or the outfield. Apparently, both have really great views!

Screw green, it ain't easy being blue!

I won't be coming here that much anymore. I might check in now and again.
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  #6 (permalink)  
Old Sat Oct 30, 2010, 03:21pm
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Originally Posted by BretMan View Post
Because that rule seems to put in place a qualifier about the pitcher having possession of the ball.
8.4.F.2 RUNNERS ARE ENTITLED TO ADVANCE WITH LIABILITY TO BE PUT OUT. "Runners may advance when the ball reaches home plate, or Until the pitcher has possession of the ball in the infield and all immediate play has apparently been completed."

The question wasn't when may runners advance, but when an umpire should call time and I quoted 10.4.J as to when that should occur.
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Old Sun Oct 31, 2010, 12:10pm
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I call "time" as soon as I see all play has stopped. It doesn't matter to me who has the ball. Left fielder could have the ball but if I see the BR has made it to first and not attempting to continue, hands go up and "time" is called. Also doesn't matter to me what level of league ball I'm calling. But, if I see an attempt to advance or if the fielder throws the ball before I call time, I wait to see what may happen and then kill it.
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