Consensus on calling time out ASA SP

[Linknblue]

Curious! What is the general consensus regarding calling time out after a ball has been hit and seemingly runners don't appear to be advancing? Does it make a difference on the level of play. Most of my work is beer leagues and it's D and E level. Adult men/women/coed and senior play.

I was of the thought that if you see that runners are not attempting to advance any longer time should be called irrespective of where the ball is as long as it's in a defensive players control.

I see advantages in that if time is called asap then a lot of the "wild" throws back to the pitcher or infield can be eliminated thus keeping you from having to get involved in some pretty bizarre calls when "dumb" take over for "skill".

I can also see that, Hey! The defense has to get the ball back to the pitcher or infielder successfully. If they can't then, me, the offense, can't take advantage of the defense's miscues.

I recognize that this won't happen as much the higher the skill level but in lower leagues it seems to speed up the game and eliminates "issues" that I don't have to deal with.

Opinions please......and this isn't ASA championship play, it's rec leagues.

Thanks

[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally Posted by Linknblue

Opinions please......and this isn't ASA championship play, it's rec leagues.

Thanks

Or you can just call time "when in the judgment of an umpire, all immediate play is apparently completed, the umpire should call time."

[BretMan]

I don't work much slow pitch. How does 8-4-F(2) factor in here (specifically, the part about the pitcher having possession of the ball)?

[DeputyUICHousto]

wait until the ball is in control of an infielder and all runners have stopped running.

[DeputyUICHousto]

wait until the ball is in control of an infielder and all runners have stopped running.

[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally Posted by BretMan

I don't work much slow pitch. How does 8-4-F(2) factor in here (specifically, the part about the pitcher having possession of the ball)?

Not a damn thing. Why do you ask?

[BretMan]

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA

Not a damn thing. Why do you ask?

Because that rule seems to put in place a qualifier about the pitcher having possession of the ball.

[NCASAUmp]

Originally Posted by BretMan

Because that rule seems to put in place a qualifier about the pitcher having possession of the ball.

Yes, but this rule deals with the ball when it hasn't been put in play by the batter.

[BretMan]

Originally Posted by NCASAUmp

Yes, but this rule deals with the ball when it hasn't been put in play by the batter.

What sort of "play" is the "all immediate play being apparently completed" refering to?

[NCASAUmp]

Originally Posted by BretMan

What sort of "play" is the "all immediate play being apparently completed" refering to?

When the runners appear to no longer be advancing and when the defense doesn't appear to be making a play on a runner.

I usually wait until the ball is in the infield (or at the edge) with runners either standing on their bases or are returning to a base and are so close to the base that no play is imminent.

[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally Posted by BretMan

Because that rule seems to put in place a qualifier about the pitcher having possession of the ball.

8.4.F.2 RUNNERS ARE ENTITLED TO ADVANCE WITH LIABILITY TO BE PUT OUT. "Runners may advance when the ball reaches home plate, or Until the pitcher has possession of the ball in the infield and all immediate play has apparently been completed."

The question wasn't when may runners advance, but when an umpire should call time and I quoted 10.4.J as to when that should occur.

[NDblue]

I call "time" as soon as I see all play has stopped. It doesn't matter to me who has the ball. Left fielder could have the ball but if I see the BR has made it to first and not attempting to continue, hands go up and "time" is called. Also doesn't matter to me what level of league ball I'm calling. But, if I see an attempt to advance or if the fielder throws the ball before I call time, I wait to see what may happen and then kill it.

[Linknblue]

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA

Or you can just call time "when in the judgment of an umpire, all immediate play is apparently completed, the umpire should call time."

Thanks guys! Irish's answer is shortest so I'm going with that. No one has complained except my buddy UIC assignor that disagreed with me. Now I can say "I don't think so with conviction".

[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally Posted by Linknblue

Thanks guys! Irish's answer is shortest so I'm going with that. No one has complained except my buddy UIC assignor that disagreed with me. Now I can say "I don't think so with conviction".

Don't credit me, it is in the ASA rule book, 10.4.I

[HugoTafurst]

Originally Posted by Linknblue

Thanks guys! Irish's answer is shortest so I'm going with that. No one has complained except my buddy UIC assignor that disagreed with me. Now I can say "I don't think so with conviction".

I notice the word "buddy" so I assume this disagreement is friendly.

But don't forget the words "UIC Assignor" when arguing the point!!....