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Old Thu Nov 04, 2010, 03:47pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by mbcrowder View Post
This may be the smallest nit I've ever seen picked. (or he might read it right ... or read the whole book and get it right anyway).
But it's trivially easy to rewrite this rule in a way that makes it clear. Which is why I made the comment that I hoped they weren't writing it that way. And why you think that most people understand fair/foul such that when they become umpires it doesn't need to be spelled out. There are plenty of folks that don't get it.

I'm curious as to your other point though. Where in the book is the actual rule spelled out? I don't have a '10 book but there's an '08 book online and in there the rule makes it clear that a ball hitting both is both fair and foul. See 8-2-M-1&2. Maybe that's been fixed, but if not, this is again an easy place to make it clear.
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Last edited by youngump; Mon Sep 19, 2011 at 07:39pm.
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