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Originally Posted by youngump
Thought Greymule above did a better job than me, but guess still not quite clear if somebody is still not following us.
The rule as amended is subject to being misread to indicate that a ball which hits both the fair and foul portions of first base is not fair because it did not hit ONLY the white portion. The rule is currently ambiguous but we all know how to call it. It will remain so after the change. This is noteworthy to me since the change was to bring this rule into alignment with the other rule and could have resolved that situation.
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Again, this is NOT a change in the rule, but a definition. First base is defined as a 15x30 base. The definition of fair ball indicates that a ball which hits the base is fair. The change is to indicate that only that this applies to the white portion only. The actual rule which decides whether the ball is fair or foul is 8.2.M.1 & 2.
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The bat issue in softball is as much about liability, insurance and litigation as it is about competition, inflated egos and softball.
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