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Old Wed Nov 03, 2010, 04:54pm
youngump youngump is offline
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Join Date: Mar 2008
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Quote:
Originally Posted by mbcrowder View Post
Which is true. What are you reading into it that isn't there? What situation can you describe that would be improperly ruled if the rule change as written goes into effect?
Thought Greymule above did a better job than me, but guess still not quite clear if somebody is still not following us.

The rule as amended is subject to being misread to indicate that a ball which hits both the fair and foul portions of first base is not fair because it did not hit ONLY the white portion. The rule is currently ambiguous but we all know how to call it. It will remain so after the change. This is noteworthy to me since the change was to bring this rule into alignment with the other rule and could have resolved that situation.
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Last edited by youngump; Mon Sep 19, 2011 at 07:38pm.
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