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Old Tue Nov 03, 2009, 11:25am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA View Post
...IMO, the only reason the INT on a BR that has been walked arose is because ...someone... sold that bill of goods to some putz.
Quote:
Originally Posted by AtlUmpSteve View Post
...because Mary Struckhoff says so.
.... OK.
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Old Tue Nov 03, 2009, 12:32pm
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Being unfamiliar with this Mary Struckhoff other than by name, upon a quick googlingseems to me she is more aptly suited and experienced for Basketball interps than softball interps.

Plus she doesnt look so bad.

To OOO this call is wrong at any level or in any org.

I think all of us would call INT on this play in a "know it when I see it" once in a career call.

Other than that, this is an idiotic call.
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Old Tue Nov 03, 2009, 01:29pm
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Even with the NFHS case study, it says if in the umpires judgement there was a "legitimate play". I find it very hard to imagine what reason there would be to attempt a play at 1st base on a walked batter. If they want to throw down to F3 to hold the runner there that is one thing, but F3 has no reason to be set up on the bag or for a throw to be right down the line.

As Wade said, I guess Ill know it when I see it.
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