Ball contacts runner, defense shorthanded

[steveshane67]

Originally Posted by NCASAUmp

How would you rule on this?

No outs, R1 on 2B, R2 on 1B. Defense is playing shorthanded (no F3), and F4 is playing behind 2B, expecting a pulled hit. B3 hits a sharp grounder towards where F3 generally would have been, striking R2 in the leg. R2 was trying to avoid the ball. F4 was nowhere near the ball, no other fielder had a chance to make any outs. All runners advance only one base.

Just out of curiosity, who was covering 1st normally, the pitcher, or did F4 normally play in the 3.5 hole and cover?


8-7-k

When a runner is struck with a fair untouched batted ball while not in contact with a base and before it passes another infielder excluding the pitcher, or if it passes an infielder and another fielder has an opportunity to make an out.

But I believe the intent of the rule was written as though a fielder must be there to have an opp. to make a play.

By letter of the rule, I guess one could make a strong case for an out sense the ball never passed an IFer, but going by intent, Id rule nothing.

[NCASAUmp]

Originally Posted by steveshane67

Just out of curiosity, who was covering 1st normally, the pitcher, or did F4 normally play in the 3.5 hole and cover

Honestly, this didn't actually happen, but it ALMOST did in one of my games a while back. Got me thinking.

[NCASAUmp]

To more specifically answer your question, no one was covering 1B. They were more concerned with getting the lead runners and minimize the other team's scoring.

[Skahtboi]

This is SP, right? So...why didn't they just pull one of their outfielders to play in the F3 spot?

[azgreg]

I have nothing, the ball did not pass another infielder or another fielder who an opportunity to make an out.

[IRISHMAFIA]

ASA 8.7 THE RUNNER IS OUT

K. When a runner is struck with a fair untouched batted ball while not in contact with a base and before is passes another infielder excluding the pitcher, or it passes an infielder and another fielder has an opportunity to make an out.
EFFECT: The ball is dead and the runner is out. All other runners must return to the last base legally touched at the time of the interference.

Did the ball pass an infielderer? I know you are trying to apply common sense here. However, assuming R2 was not in contact with the base, the rules do not allow any call other than "out" on the given play.

[steveshane67]

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA

ASA 8.7 THE RUNNER IS OUT

K. When a runner is struck with a fair untouched batted ball while not in contact with a base and before is passes another infielder excluding the pitcher, or it passes an infielder and another fielder has an opportunity to make an out.
EFFECT: The ball is dead and the runner is out. All other runners must return to the last base legally touched at the time of the interference.

Did the ball pass an infielderer? I know you are trying to apply common sense here. However, assuming R2 was not in contact with the base, the rules do not allow any call other than "out" on the given play.

But you can see that theres a qualifying statement in the last part of the rule "nother fielder has an opportunity to make an out". I wasnt there when the rules were written, but it doesnt take a giant leap in reasoning to believe this sentiment is also applicable in the first part of the rule "before is passes another infielder". Lets face it, the ASA rules arent the most well written document, and I dont think the rules ppl foresaw a team playing without a 1B.

That being said, technically its an out, but thats like a cop giving someone a jaywalking ticket when they walk 1' out of the crosswalk, yes they were out of the crosswalk but they were still in walking "in" the designated area.

[HugoTafurst]

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA

ASA 8.7 THE RUNNER IS OUT

K. When a runner is struck with a fair untouched batted ball while not in contact with a base and before is passes another infielder excluding the pitcher, or it passes an infielder and another fielder has an opportunity to make an out.
EFFECT: The ball is dead and the runner is out. All other runners must return to the last base legally touched at the time of the interference.

Did the ball pass an infielderer? I know you are trying to apply common sense here. However, assuming R2 was not in contact with the base, the rules do not allow any call other than "out" on the given play.

How silly of you to actually try to apply the rule to the situation...

Originally Posted by Skahtboi

This is SP, right? So...why didn't they just pull one of their outfielders to play in the F3 spot?

Drunk team involved?