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Originally Posted by NCASAUmp
How would you rule on this?
No outs, R1 on 2B, R2 on 1B. Defense is playing shorthanded (no F3), and F4 is playing behind 2B, expecting a pulled hit. B3 hits a sharp grounder towards where F3 generally would have been, striking R2 in the leg. R2 was trying to avoid the ball. F4 was nowhere near the ball, no other fielder had a chance to make any outs. All runners advance only one base.
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Just out of curiosity, who was covering 1st normally, the pitcher, or did F4 normally play in the 3.5 hole and cover?
8-7-k
Quote:
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When a runner is struck with a fair untouched batted ball while not in contact with a base and before it passes another infielder excluding the pitcher, or if it passes an infielder and another fielder has an opportunity to make an out.
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But I believe the intent of the rule was written as though a fielder must be there to have an opp. to make a play.
By letter of the rule, I guess one could make a strong case for an out sense the ball never passed an IFer, but going by intent, Id rule nothing.