Touching bases in legal order

[Centerfield9]

R1 at 1st. Batter hits a triple, touches 1st and 2nd and stands on 3rd. R1 misses 2nd, touches 3rd, and slides into home on a play where the ball goes out-of-play. The defense is screaming that R1 missed 2nd and to appeal. R1 gets up and runs back to 3rd on his way to 2nd.

Questions:
Can R1 go back in reverse order to touch a missed base on a dead ball? And how does this affect the appeal?
Does the batter-runner need to back-track behind R1, i.e. go back to 1st, so that R1 can occupy 2nd?

[RKBUmp]

Dont have an ASA case study so cant find it there. The NFHS case study book doesnt have anything in it that even comes close, but by the letter of the ASA rules it appears that the runner/s have to be allowed to complete their base running requirments before an appeal may be granted.

No mention is made about succeeding runner except to state that a runner may not return to touch a missed base or base left to soon once a succeeding runner has scored. In the case presented, the succeeding runner has not scored so it appears that if the runner at 3rd property retreats back to 1st and lead runner properly goes back to 2nd it would be a legal play.

Anyone have an ASA case study that covers it?

[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally Posted by Centerfield9

R1 at 1st. Batter hits a triple, touches 1st and 2nd and stands on 3rd. R1 misses 2nd, touches 3rd, and slides into home on a play where the ball goes out-of-play. The defensive is screaming that R1 missed 2nd and to appeal. R1 gets up and runs back to 3rd on his way to 2nd.

Questions:
Can R1 go back in reverse order to touch a missed base on a dead ball?

Yes.

And how does this affect the appeal?

It has no affect on the appeal which will be accepted by the umpire AFTER all baserunning duties are completed. Of course, by then there is no appeal to be made since the runner touched all the bases.

Does the batter-runner need to back-track behind R1, i.e. go back to 1st, so that R1 can occupy 2nd?

Though I have never seen it, yes.

[youngump]

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA

Though I have never seen it, yes.

Why?
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[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally Posted by youngump

Why?

Why not?

[youngump]

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA

Why not?

Because the rule for passing a runner is only intended to apply during a live ball. (At least based on the penalty.)
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1CherryLady

[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally Posted by youngump

Because the rule for passing a runner is only intended to apply during a live ball. (At least based on the penalty.)

Citation please.

Speaking ASA

While the "ball remains" or "is live" subsequent to the rule being effected, I cannot find any published stipulation that the rule only applies to live-ball situations.

Now I think about it, I believe this was covered at the UIC Clinic this year using a MLB example from before they called it MLB. I believe the example used involved Tim McCarver hitting an over-the-fence grand slam on July 4, 1976 in Pittsburgh. Rounding 1B, he promptly passed Gary Maddox who was admiring the shot. Mr. All Talk, No Rules Knowledge was ruled out, credited with a single and three RBIs.

[RKBUmp]

Because the batter/runner can not pass any other runner on base without being out. There is no way for the lead runner to legally retouch 2nd base without the batter/runner also returning to 1st legally.

[AtlUmpSteve]

Originally Posted by RKBUmp

Because the batter/runner can not pass any other runner on base without being out. There is no way for the lead runner to legally retouch 2nd base without the batter/runner also returning to 1st legally.

Actually, yes there is. It is legally possible for B2 to retreat only to 2nd, and R1 retreat (also) to 2nd, touch it with B2 also in simultaneous contact, as long as there is no physical passing.

In live play, that couldn't be the end, but, we are talking about awarded bases due to the ball thrown out of play. They only need to retreat enough to retouch, then advance again to the legally awarded bases, again in proper order.

[Tru_in_Blu]

Originally Posted by AtlUmpSteve

Actually, yes there is. It is legally possible for B2 to retreat only to 2nd, and R1 retreat (also) to 2nd, touch it with B2 also in simultaneous contact, as long as there is no physical passing.

In live play, that couldn't be the end, but, we are talking about awarded bases due to the ball thrown out of play. They only need to retreat enough to retouch, then advance again to the legally awarded bases, again in proper order.

So this could get pretty interesting. If the batter did not retreat to 2B as described above, as soon as the runner went from home to 3B, then passed B2 on her way to touch 2b, B2 would be called out? [And if called out immediately as the third out of the inning, this would render the runner's retrace of the bases moot?]

Ted