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I was umpiring a 11-12 year old game yesterday when this play took place. R1. F1 received the ball from F2 after a pitch and threw to F3 trying to catch R1 sleeping 1 step from the bag. R1 stepped back in plenty of time. F3 had one foot on top of the bag instead of against the side of the bag. R1 stepped on top of F3's foot not touching the bag at all when tagged. Should F3's foot have been considered part of the bag because it was on top of it or should R1 have been called out for not touching the bag? I called him safe.
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Good Question
Quote:
I would have guessed the runner safe, also. If, the runner had stepped on the glove with the ball, though.... mick |
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Brent, I view it no different as trying to buy a bat with hands attached. I can't buy a base with a foot attached.
Is it no different than a legal block of the base? I will call the runner out. There is plenty of base besides the fielder foot that the runner can step to. I will add, however, I need to be absolutely certain no part of the runner's foot is touching the base when tagged. I will provide the benefit any doubt in my mind to the runner. BTW, if he stepped back "in plenty of time" as stated, why did the runner not readjust his foot to be on the base? Perhaps the play may have been a little closer than stated? Perhaps not. Just my opinion, Freix [Edited by Bfair on Jun 18th, 2001 at 10:51 AM] |
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