Batter awarded 1st base?

[AtlUmpSteve]

Originally Posted by Dholloway1962

On a dead ball I say no, how can you award anything that occurs during a dead ball?

On the 2nd question I would say if there was some type of legitimate confusion based on a call that the umpire had to make (check swing for example) then I say you have nothing, especially if the runner takes off as you first mentioned. Rules allow an umpire to correct this.

You are off base with both of these comments.

After a foul ball, if the catcher retrieves it with no runners on base, throwing the ball to anyone other than the pitcher is an awarded ball; the rule says so.

On the second part, it frankly doesn't matter if the batter runs; the catcher may only legally play on a batter-runner. As to rules allowing an umpire correction, they ONLY apply if there was delayed or reversed call by an umpire; not if F2 was simply wrong, or confused by the batter (who is not a batter-runner by rule). Don't look to reverse calls or not apply the rules simply because the catcher was confused (or you don't agree with the rule).