Runner on base hit with batted ball

[rwest]

Originally Posted by NCASAUmp

Intentional or not, interference may be the ruling. If a defensive player had the opportunity to make a play, the runner is out, regardless of whether or not they're on the bag. What the rules supplement didn't state about the potential dead ball is why the ball would be dead: ball hit runner, fielder behind runner had a chance, interference, dead ball, runner out.

In question #1 of this sitch, it's important to keep in mind that while they are "forced" to advance, the book does not really say WHEN they're forced to advance, ground ball or not. So all of the "no" answers that were posted are correct.

Intent is required here. A player is not forced to vacate a base in order to avoid an interference call. Otherwise that could possible put the runner in jeopardy. The ball is not dead because of interference. The ball is dead because the defense didn't have a chance to make a play. This is similar to an umpire getting hit by the ball if he is in front of a fielder. You kill it and award the batter first base and advance any runners forced. There is no out on this play unless the runner intentionally interfered.

One more thing. The reason the rule supplement didn't state that the ball was dead due to interference is because that's not why its dead. Look at rule 8-1-E-6. It says "When a fair batted ball....touches a runner in contact with a base: EFFECT: The runner is not out. The ball is live or dead depending on the position of the fielder closest to the base."