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Thought E was true.
Ball hit directly to catcher's mitt, bounces up, fumbled a bit by F2, caught by F1... whaddayahave?
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I was thinking of the immortal words of Socrates, who said, 'I drank what?'” West Houston Mike |
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Tom |
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And if it's foul ... is it foul and caught? An out... with runners needing to return if they left before the ball hit the catcher? if so, the smark catcher would, on a routine foul tip, bobble it on purpose right on out to the pitcher and let F1 catch it. A stealing baserunner would be a dead duck. This can't be right.
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I was thinking of the immortal words of Socrates, who said, 'I drank what?'” West Houston Mike |
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No, not an out. Just a foul ball. It is an odd-duck rule that goes against the general bobbled-ball-caught-by-another-fielder definition of a catch.
Here it is: Quote:
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Tom |
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I was thinking of the immortal words of Socrates, who said, 'I drank what?'” West Houston Mike |
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A) ball goes from bat, directly to glove, and is caught. B) ball goes from bat, directly to mask, falls, and is caught. We treat those differently, don't we --- so why the assumption that the cases are suddenly the same if the person catching the ball is not F2?
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I was thinking of the immortal words of Socrates, who said, 'I drank what?'” West Houston Mike |
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