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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Mon Jun 25, 2007, 02:56pm
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Posts: 382
Technical Madness .

While reading through definitions case plays etc I came upon this simple play also while teaching .
2 strikes on the batter who bunts the ball and it goes foul .
We have an out , right ?
Newbie asks definition of a bunt
A batted ball not swung at , but intentionallymet with the bat and tapped slowly within the infield .
Newbie "Wheres the infield "
"Portion of the field in fair territory that includes areas normally covered by infielders "
Newbie "So technically if a bunted ball goes foul it is no longer a bunt and therefore the batter shouldnt be out "
Im gonna have trouble with this Newbie .
These are ISF rules , dont know your definitions for ASA but from past experiences ASA seems to be more exact and has ironed out a lot of discrepancies
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Old Mon Jun 25, 2007, 03:01pm
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If it is "foul"--how can it be within the infield?
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Old Mon Jun 25, 2007, 03:16pm
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Yes you are getting the drift
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Old Mon Jun 25, 2007, 03:21pm
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I like newbies that ask questions . . . gives us all a "new" perspective.
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Old Mon Jun 25, 2007, 04:22pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by debeau
Newbie asks definition of a bunt
A batted ball not swung at , but intentionallymet with the bat and tapped slowly within the infield .
I'm surprised he didn't also ask for the definition of a swing. . .
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  #6 (permalink)  
Old Mon Jun 25, 2007, 11:09pm
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Hey Hey Hey
That will no doubt come up and seeing as there isnt one in ISF definitions Im XXXXXXXXed
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Old Tue Jun 26, 2007, 04:15am
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No, you're good. If there is no definition, then you have good old Rule 10 to lean on...
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An ucking fidiot
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