Technical Madness .
While reading through definitions case plays etc I came upon this simple play also while teaching .
2 strikes on the batter who bunts the ball and it goes foul . We have an out , right ? Newbie asks definition of a bunt A batted ball not swung at , but intentionallymet with the bat and tapped slowly within the infield . Newbie "Wheres the infield " "Portion of the field in fair territory that includes areas normally covered by infielders " Newbie "So technically if a bunted ball goes foul it is no longer a bunt and therefore the batter shouldnt be out " Im gonna have trouble with this Newbie . These are ISF rules , dont know your definitions for ASA but from past experiences ASA seems to be more exact and has ironed out a lot of discrepancies |
If it is "foul"--how can it be within the infield?
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Yes you are getting the drift
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I like newbies that ask questions . . . gives us all a "new" perspective.
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Hey Hey Hey
That will no doubt come up and seeing as there isnt one in ISF definitions Im XXXXXXXXed |
No, you're good. If there is no definition, then you have good old Rule 10 to lean on...
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