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Officiating takes more than OJT. It's not our jobs to invent rulings to fit our personal idea of what should and should not be. |
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Officiating takes more than OJT. It's not our jobs to invent rulings to fit our personal idea of what should and should not be. |
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Once it is clear that defense is not going to do anything about this, kill it.
If the OFFENSE wakes up and BR tries to head back to 1st, you have an out on LBR. If the DEFENSE wakes up and tries to play on the runner, play on. But if No One tries to fix it, we have to, and since you can't grant an out (no one has really done anything illegal), the only remedy is to send BR back to 1st.
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"Many baseball fans look upon an umpire as a sort of necessary evil to the luxury of baseball, like the odor that follows an automobile." - Hall of Fame Pitcher Christy Mathewson |
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Why is there an out on anyone (let alone LBR) if you've called time and BR then heads back to 1st? This is techincally no different than calling "time" with the BR one step off 1st base. |
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Tom |
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Thanks GaryB |
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Thought I sent this earlier; must have hit a wrong button.
Mike has given the ASA ruling; once it is established neither side is making a play, kill the ball, and return the runner to the only base legally attained. If defense makes a play, play on; if offense leaves the base, LBR violation. NFHS has given a different ruling; call the trail runner out, per Mary Struckhoff. No direct rule reference, as no rule actually applies. Her comment was that the runner has no legal right to the base; however, she neglects the rule requirement of the appropriate remedy, that the defense tag the runner who doesn't have the legal right to the base. Nonetheless, that is the NFHS official ruling.
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Steve ASA/ISF/NCAA/NFHS/PGF |
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Tom,
Yes, I saw the response, but do not understand how R2 would be in voilaton of LBR if R2 started to return to 1st. Here is my thinking about the situation. With the situation as described, R2 is liable to be put out if tagged, because R2 is not legally occupying a base. Since R2 is not legally occupying a base, R2 is technically off base between 1st and 2nd when the ball is received by F1 in the circle and LBR goes into effect. Why would the LBR not be applied as if R2 is off base between 1st and 2nd in this situation? Thanks GaryB |
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Doesn't calling R1 out after a subsequent pitch give the D an advantage? You are awarding them an out when they hosed the play?
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TCBLUE13 NFHS, PONY, Babe Ruth, LL, NSA Softball in the Bible "In the big-inning"
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Once the defense indicates indifference to the situation (I would consider the DC instructing his pitcher to pitch - which the PU should not allow - as indifference), the PU should kill the play and return BR to 1B.
There is an ASA case play to back this up, but I don't have the case book with me at the moment.
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Tom |
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Found that ASA Casebook play -
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R1 on 2B, R2 on 1B when B3 hits the ball to F6. R1 holds up as R2 advances to 2B. F6 throws out B3 as both R1 and R2 stand on 2B. F6 throws out B3 as both R1 and R2 stand on 2B. The defense does not notice and the ball is thrown to the pitcher. No further play is apparent. Ruling: The umpire should call "time." The runners should be awarded the base they would legally occupy. R2 is returned to 1B. (10-8H; 10-1) |
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