Force out at 1B?

[AtlUmpSteve]

If the out at 1B was a force, it would save a few words in the rule about when a run scores on the third (or fourth) out. The only difference I can think of in your more specific question is that the batter-runner at first is not put back in jeopardy (like a force) if s/he returns past the base (at first, that would usually be thinking the ball was called foul, for example).

I, for one, would be perfectly happy if the definistion of a force play included the BR at 1B, and it was all more consistent. But, it isn't, as discussed on the NFHS board.