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Old Wed Feb 08, 2006, 02:49pm
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Join Date: Oct 2004
Location: Columbus, Ohio
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Conversely, I can find no rule that says an improper batter assumes the count of a proper batter who has not completed her at bat.

By what rule does B3- an improper batter- assume B2's 3-2 count?

Either there is an approved ruling for this play- which, hopefully, Mike will furnish- or we are at the mercy of rule 10-1, where "the plate umpire has the authority to make decisions on any situations not spefically covered in the rules".

If it's the latter, then I would be tempted to bring B2 back to the plate to resume with a 3-2 count, which seems like a fair fix. And I'm still leaving R1 at second!

If there is an approved ruling, I suspect that when Mike supplies the answer most of us will be smacking our foreheads and saying, "D'oh! Why didn't I think of that!".
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