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Originally posted by BretMan
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Originally posted by IRISHMAFIA
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B3 assumes nothing as they are not supposed to be there. That is why it is BOO.
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That's a point that trips me up.
If "B3 assumes nothing", then isn't her count 0-0?
If her count is 0-0, then one pitch is thrown- a ball- and the count becomes 1-0. At that point the defensive coach protests.
If we apply the BOO rule, the improper batter was discovered while still at bat. The correct ruling would be to replace her with the correct batter (B2) who then assumes B3's ball/strike count (1-0).
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I'm sorry, but I don't know how you cannot grasp this. This is extremely simple. If the umpire didn't realize it was a different batter, how would the count have changed?
Let's try it this way.
First batter reached first safely, so you now have R1 with no outs.
The next action is B3 going to 1st base.
Was there an out or new runner between the two events? No.
That means that the second player due to bat in the inning was B2. Is B2 mentioned in any action yet in this inning? No. Since the defense addressed B3's existance prior to a pitch to B4, the odd-player-out cannot be dismissed, therefor, B2 is out for failing to bat.
Since this was before a pitch to B4, the previous advancement on the play which ended the batter's "at bat" is nullified. That means B3 is removed from 1B.
The next batter is that which follows the batter ruled out for failing to bat.
That brings B3 to the plate with a 0-0 count.
ASA Rule 7.2.C.2