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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Mon Jul 23, 2018, 06:37pm
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Join Date: Jan 2016
Location: Indiana
Posts: 81
Quote:
Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA View Post
Here we go again.

You are working your 11th national and this is a question?

Try reading the definition of interference, the word "act" is part of the definition.

And, while you are at it, check the definition of obstruction and see if you can find the word or requirement of an "act" of obstruction.
Irish, that is some funny stuff right there. I had the exact same thought when I read the original post.
This play has been a subject for debate in our area for a long time, and you just can’t get some umpires to understand the intent of the rules sometimes.
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  #2 (permalink)  
Old Fri Jul 20, 2018, 08:07pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by josephrt1 View Post
check RS 33. runner interference includes: 3. Intentionally interfering with a thrown ball.

It does not sound like your situation was intentional.
My rule book under RS 33 doesn't mention the word "intentionally". You may be referencing an older rule book.
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Old Sat Jul 21, 2018, 10:23am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Manny A View Post
My rule book under RS 33 doesn't mention the word "intentionally". You may be referencing an older rule book.
You are correct, sorry. the R/S does not say intentional.

Last edited by josephrt1; Sat Jul 21, 2018 at 10:51am.
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Old Fri Jul 20, 2018, 04:14pm
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Location: The Land Of The Free and The Home Of The Brave (MD/DE)
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Quote:
Originally Posted by EricH View Post
One out, runner on first (R1), batter (B1) hits a ground ball to F3, who throws to F6 at second base to turn a double play. The thrown ball hits R1 in the shoulder. In the umpire's judgment, F3 did not intentionally throw at R1, and R1 did not intentionally interfere with the throw. Both R1 and BR arrive at 2nd and 1st base safely before F4 retrieves the ball.

What is the result of the play?
Runners on 2nd and 1st, one out.
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