USA Softball - Interference - Thrown ball

[RKBUmp]

Running the bases is not an act of interference. Other than a batter runner between home and first, there is no penalty for a runner hit by a thrown ball unless they commit some act of interference.

[EricH]

Originally Posted by RKBUmp

Running the bases is not an act of interference. Other than a batter runner between home and first, there is no penalty for a runner hit by a thrown ball unless they commit some act of interference.

You could say the same about a fielder standing in the path of a base runner. He has not committed an ACT of obstruction, but he will be called for it anyway. So give me a better reason. Both definitions (of obstruction and interference) reference an "act." So we cannot hold the fielder to a higher standard than the runner.

[RKBUmp]

Originally Posted by EricH

You could say the same about a fielder standing in the path of a base runner. He has not committed an ACT of obstruction, but he will be called for it anyway. So give me a better reason. Both definitions (of obstruction and interference) reference an "act." So we cannot hold the fielder to a higher standard than the runner.

No, a fielder just standing in a runners path is not automatically obstruction. There are 2 factors that must be met to have obstruction, 1, a fielder not in possession of the ball and not in the act of Fielding a batted ball in the runners way, and 2, some hindrance of the runner. Until both are met you do not have obstruction.

So no, a fielder is not guilty of obstruction for just being in a runner path until such time as the runner is actually impeded in some way.

[EricH]

Originally Posted by RKBUmp

So no, a fielder is not guilty of obstruction for just being in a runner path until such time as the runner is actually impeded in some way.

Semantics

[EricH]

I'm actually looking for rules-based or point-of-emphasis-based answers here, not just quips or three-word responses. I found ONE rule clarification play on the USA Softball website that indicated a batter-runner COULD be ruled out for interfering with a throw home, even if the interference was not intentional, but it did not provide real guidance. It just indicated that he COULD be ruled out IF the umpire judged it to be interference (NOT intentional). How can you judge an UNINTENTIONAL act where a runner gets hit with a thrown ball as interference in one case but not another? THAT is what I am getting at here.

[RKBUmp]

Originally Posted by EricH

Semantics

No, it is not semantics it is the rule. What you stated about a fielder being in the path of the runner being obstruction is not correct. Until such time as the runner is actually impeded it is nothing.

[RKBUmp]

You have been given the answer repeatedly. Unless the runner commits some act to interfere with the thrown ball such as slapping at it, purposely changing course to be hit by it etc, being hit by the throw is nothing. Running the bases is not an act of interference

You start calling that and you are going to start a beanball session by the defense to get easy outs. It has never been interpreted in any way that a runner hit by a thrown ball is interference unless they commit some act to interfere with the throw.

[EricH]

Originally Posted by RKBUmp

Unless the runner commits some act to interfere with the thrown ball such as slapping at it, purposely changing course to be hit by it etc, being hit by the throw is nothing.

No. Those are all INTENTIONAL. The rule book was changed, and as I stated above, the case I mentioned indicated that the runner can be ruled out even if the act is NOT intentional, but it did not provide an example.

You start calling that and you are going to start a beanball session by the defense to get easy outs.

No. That results in ejections.

It has never been interpreted in any way that a runner hit by a thrown ball is interference unless they commit some act to interfere with the throw.

Again, give me an act that can be ruled interference WITHOUT being intentional.