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Originally Posted by MD Longhorn

Think of it logically.

3rd and 10 from the A-20, they gain 15. At that moment, they've gained a first down, from the 35. Then they earn a dead ball 15-yarder. It SHOULD BE (not by rule, I know...) 1st and 25 from the 20. There is a logical inconsistency in giving the 1st down when they earned it, but then not resetting the chains until after the DBF.

Consider the same thing, but the 15-yarder occurs after we've set the chains. NOW it's 1st and 25. Why should the application of the penalty depend on how quickly 1 official signals the RFP or 3 non-players happen to move their equipment? Either the foul occurred DURING the down, or AFTER the down... we're treating it halfway one way and halfway the other. Dumb.

Short answer to the highlighted question: because that's when the new series begins.

Longer answer: we have 3 real-world time intervals (not clock-time) to consider:

1. The time before a series ends (for instance, by reaching or failing to reach the LTG).
2. The time after a series ends and the new series begins.
3. The time after a new series begins.

In the context of your question, there are no dead ball fouls during (1), because the ball is live.

So dead ball fouls occur during (2) and (3), and they are penalized accordingly.

You might not like how it works, but it's certainly logically consistent.