Foul where distance gained prior to foul

[Ed Hickland]

Originally Posted by wwcfoa43

Excuse the perhaps simple question but I am new to the U.S. rules. Under NFL rules does the penalty for a foul get included before or after the determination for first down. (In Canada it is after if the distance is gained before the foul.)

Situation (NFL rules):

Team A 3rd and 10 at the A 20 yard line. Players A42 rushes the ball. Player A10 holds at the A 35 yard line and the ball goes dead at the A 40.

Is the result 3rd and 5 at the A 25 or is it 1st and 10 at the A 25?

Thanks.

NFHS - All-but-one; NCAA - Three-but-one. The spot of the foul is A's 35. A42 reached A's 40 where it would have been a first down. By rule, you must consider the action during the live ball as the hold is a live ball foul. Consider, A42 reached the 40 with the assistance of the hold at the 35. Result after penalty enforcement 3rd and 5.

[ajmc]

To try and explain this a different way; A runner is entitled to any and all yardage he gains without fouling. Once he fouls, however, any yardage he gains after fouling is considered tainted. When the opponent accepts the foul, the runner suffers the penalty measured from where he fouled, rather than where he may have wound up, because that additional yardage is considered tainted.

There will be times that the opponent, for any number of reasons, would rather accept the results of the play, including the tainted yardage, and will choose to decline the penalty, in which case even the tainted yardage gain stands.