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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Tue Jul 01, 2008, 06:41pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by daggo66
I'll take a shot. This is off the cuff wothout looking it up first. It would appear that the "clean hands" rule would apply. In order for B to maintain possession they would have to decline the penalty against A and accept the penalty against themselves. 10 yards from the spot of the foul making it B's ball at the A14. Since a penalty was accepted we must play one untimed down. B takes a knee and it's over. The other option is for B to accept the penalty on A giving A an untimed down from the 25.
REPLY: daggo66...B is trailing in the game so they wouldn't be taking a knee.
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Old Tue Jul 01, 2008, 07:06pm
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I believe if, for whatever reason, "B" were to accept A's foul, that would consttitute a double foul and the game would be over.
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Old Tue Jul 01, 2008, 07:19pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by ajmc
I believe if, for whatever reason, "B" were to accept A's foul, that would consttitute a double foul and the game would be over.
REPLY: Not true...a double foul requires an untimed down, doesn't it? And why would B want that anyway since they're trailing in the game.
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Old Tue Jul 01, 2008, 08:29pm
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Bob,

I'm thinking the same thing as Drago. Since B got the ball with clean hands, they would decline the penalty by A. B would be penalized 10 yards from the 4, making it's 1st and 10 from the 14 with one untimed down to play. B would go for the end zone. BUT since B was in possession of the final play, and they committed the foul, should their be an untimed down?
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